Thursday, March 18, 2021

Terms of the Times (2b): A self-inflicted blindness


They assert without evidence that continuing cost pressure cannot exist; they beckon the decline of prosperity.

 - Arthurian



Before the Volcker Fed, economists searched for the cost that was the source of cost-push inflation. That search was abandoned, unresolved, when Paul Volcker worked his magic. Marcus Nunes gives away the magician's secret:

On becoming chairman of the Fed, Volker challenged the Keynesian orthodoxy which held that the high unemployment high inflation combination of the 1970´s demonstrated that inflation arose from cost-push and supply shocks ...

To Volker, the policy adopted by the FOMC “rests on a simple premise, documented by centuries of experience, that the inflation process is ultimately related to excessive growth in money and credit”.

This view, an overhaul of Fed doctrine, implicitly accepts that rising inflation is caused by “demand-pull” or excess aggregate demand or nominal spending.

Or, as Robert Hetzel said,

The central bank is the cause of inflation. 

Or, as Mike Shedlock said, quoting a friend:

There actually is no such thing as 'cost push inflation'. Think about it - if the money supply were to remain stable (which isn't the case, but hypothetically), then a rise in price of some goods automatically would lead to a fall in prices of some other goods...

Economy-wide, a rise in general prices is only possible if the money supply increases.

Or, as Caroline Baum said:

This is one of those myths that never dies: cost-push inflation. Milton Friedman was adamant that both prices and costs rise in response to an increase in aggregate demand, which is a function of the Fed’s money creation.

Or, as Dallas S. Batten wrote in 1981, while Volcker was performing his magic:

The ultimate source of inflation is persistent excessive growth in aggregate demand resulting from persistent excessive growth in the supply of money.

Since Volcker's time, the search for underlying cost pressure has been cast aside, forgotten. Why bother to look for cost pressure? If the Fed can control inflation by controlling the money, who cares about underlying cost pressure? Who even cares?

 

I care, because cost pressure slows the economy.

Of course the monetary restriction we use to fight inflation slows the economy. This is Basil Fawlty's "bleeding obvious." But whether or not "the Fed can control inflation by controlling the money," it remains true that cost pressure not relieved by inflation finds relief by slowing the economy. It is obvious to me that if an increase in cost drives my profits down (and if profits were running low anyway because times are tough) then I'm going to have to raise my prices. The cost pressure forces my hand. 

And if policy prevents the increase in my prices, then maybe my business fails: The economy gets a little slower, because of cost not relieved by inflation. 

Note that "wage and price controls" could have the same effect as "tight money" in this regard, driving business out of business and slowing the economy.

Note also that if profits have been running low because times are tough, then cost pressure was probably reducing profits and slowing the economy already for some years before rising cost forced the closure of my (hypothetical) business.

Monetary restriction slows the economy. So does cost pressure that is not relieved by inflation. But here is something else, something I have trouble understanding: Cost pressure slows the economy even if inflation fully relieves the pressure. I can't make sense of it. But here it is, in the inflation diagrams:


This is a screen capture of slide 36 from a SlideShare presentation by videoaakash15.
You can click the image to visit the presentation.

Note the direction of the arrows below the horizontal axis. As the diagrams show,

Under demand-pull inflation, output and income tend to grow faster. Under cost-push inflation, they tend to grow slower.

The cost-push diagram does not show Aggregate Supply shifting to the left as an alternative to a price increase. It shows prices rising and Aggregate Supply shifting left. The diagram indicates that both of these changes happen.

Like me, not everyone gets this. But I am starting to find people who do.

Frederic S. Mishkin, in The Causes of Inflation:

... demand-pull inflation will be associated with periods when output is above the natural rate level, while cost-push inflation is associated with periods when output is below the natural rate level.

Demand-pull goes with rapid growth, Mishkin says, and cost-push goes with slow growth.


Siddha Raj Bhatta, the Deputy Director at the Central Bank of Nepal:

In a less than fully employed economy, demand side inflation raises price level but at the same time output as well as employment level also rises. On the other hand, in supply side inflation, price level rises but employment and output falls due to decrease in supply. Thus, supply side inflation has two costs: fall in purchasing power and rise in unemployment.

The Deputy Director says demand-side inflation helps grow jobs and the economy, while supply-side inflation is harmful to growth and employment.


According to Tejvan Pettinger at Economics Help, cost-push inflation causes

  • "a shift to the left of short run aggregate supply."
  • "rising prices and falling real GDP."
  • "a fall in living standards."
  • "a fall in real wages."

If I was the cleaner for the ECB, Pettinger says, I’d be tempted to barge into a meeting and say 

“It’s not the inflation you need to sort out, its the falling GDP!”

Taken out of context, of course, that last part. 

 

What happens if cost pressure is not relieved?

Let me say again that I do not understand how cost-push slows the economy if the cost pressure is fully relieved by inflation. On the other hand, it is easy to see that a policy of restraining inflation will leave the cost pressure less than fully relieved, and will result in some slowing of economic growth.

Restraint of inflation is standard practice, so my assumption is that cost pressure is always less than fully relieved, and therefore that cost-push inflation does always cause economic growth to slow.

Unfortunately, inflation is the lesser problem. Cost pressure is the greater problem.

It seems that no one who makes the "accommodation" argument -- no one who agrees with Hetzel, Shedlock, Baum, Batten, and Volcker, for example -- stops to wonder what happens when cost pressure is not relieved by inflation. By failing to accommodate the cost pressure, the monetary authority prevents inflation, and that's as far as the thinking goes. But this policy encourages the slowing of economic growth.

Imagine a case where mild, long-term cost pressure exists. It is mild, so neither the inflation nor the slowing of growth is troubling. But the Consumer Price Index rises from 102.1 in January 1984 to 262.231 after 37 years. Is that mild inflation, or are we just accustomed to it?

If any of that inflation was cost-push inflation, then economic growth was slowed by the cost pressure. If it continues for 37 years, the cumulative impact on growth must surely be troubling.

People say cost-push inflation is rare. That's wishful thinking.

People have many explanations for the slowing of economic growth. All of these probably have some merit. But no one seems to consider that a mild, long-term cost pressure could be the driving force behind the gradual, long-term decline of economic growth. It just doesn't fit with evolved thought.


The proper solution to cost-push inflation

The proper solution to cost-push inflation is not to raise interest rates and slow the economy further. The proper solution is to discover and eliminate the source of the cost pressure. 

According to fully-evolved inflation theory, there's no such thing as cost-push. There is demand-pull demand side inflation, and there are "supply shocks". According to this theory, no solution is required because there cannot be a cost-push problem. That's like saying There is no God

We cannot know. We can only assume. That's okay for religion, but not for economics.

My idea of the proper solution to cost-push inflation is, first, to admit that it might exist.

Keep your "simple premise, documented by centuries of experience, that the inflation process is ultimately related to excessive growth in money and credit". And keep the view that without monetary accommodation, there can be no inflation. I do. I maintain that view.

But consider the possibility that, should cost pressure arise, it would slow economic growth. As the inflation diagram shows, it might slow economic growth even if the Fed creates enough inflation to fully accommodate the cost pressure. It would certainly slow economic growth in any other case.

What is the proper solution to cost pressure and cost-push inflation? The proper solution is to discover and eliminate the source of cost pressure.

 

The Temporary Nature of Supply Shocks

Peter Cooper lays this out in a recent post at heteconomist:

A supply shock can cause one-off price hikes, independently of demand conditions, but for the one-off effect to act as a catalyst for cost-push inflation there needs to be a socioeconomic process capable of reinforcing the initial effect ...

Inflation is defined as a sustained increase in the level of prices. You don't get a sustained increase from a supply shock, because supply shocks by definition are "one-off" events, as Cooper says. Or

Supply shocks don't create inflation, because supply shocks are temporary and inflation is sustained. That's the "evolved" view.


Five Key Points

You see where we end up:

  1. We have defined "inflation" as a sustained increase in the price level.
  2. We have replaced the term "cost-push" with "supply side" and we attribute supply side inflation to "supply shocks" and to nothing else.
  3. We have defined "shocks" as temporary, one-time, one-off events that are incapable of creating sustained inflation and therefore, by definition, incapable of creating inflation.
  4. We end up with demand-pull (or demand-side) inflation -- the "too much money chasing too few goods" inflation -- and supply-side (formerly cost-push) inflation, which is by definition temporary (and therefore not even inflation, by definition), and not something for the Federal Reserve to muck around with. And
  5. We end up exactly as Scott Sumner said:
    "There's supply side inflation, which is created by shocks like sudden increases in oil prices, and then demand side inflation caused by overspending in the economy. It's really demand side inflation that the Fed is concerned about. There's not much they can do about supply side inflation."

Sumner's view is the dominant, fully evolved view, far as I can tell. Supply-side non-flation is caused only by economic "shocks". Therefore, there is no such thing as "cost pressure" and, in particular, no such thing as "sustained cost pressure."


I said earlier that I cannot lay out the chronology precisely. I am conscious of this as a weak point in this essay, and in my economics in general. So let me take a moment to strengthen the story a bit.

Frederic S. Mishkin's The Causes of Inflation is from September 1984. Mishkin wrote:

The conclusion reached in this paper is that in the last ten years there has been a convergence of views in the economics profession on the causes of inflation. As long as inflation is appropriately defined to be a sustained inflation, macroeconomic analysis, whether of the monetarist or Keynesian persuasion, leads to agreement with Milton Friedman's famous dictum, "Inflation is always and everywhere a monetary phenomenon."

To my ear Mishkin is saying that inflation was "appropriately" redefined some time between 1973 or '74 and 1983 or '84. Essentially, he is saying that inflation was redefined to work with other redefined or replaced terminology, in order to be able to reach a consensus that inflation is always demand-pull, always "a monetary phenomenon".

This validated the work of Paul Volcker (which, good grief, was still ongoing in 1984). The redefined terms validated the "simple premise, documented by centuries of experience, that the inflation process is ultimately related to excessive growth in money and credit". At the same time, the changes invalidated the concept of cost-push inflation, cost pressure as an economic phenomenon, and three decades or more of work on cost-push inflation.

 

If you define "supply shocks" as temporary, and "cost-push" as a temporary phenomenon induced by supply shocks, you are closing the door on the possibility of long-term consequences arising from continuing cost pressure. You are asserting, without evidence, that there is no such thing as long-term cost pressure.

In the process, you deny the possibility that an initially small cost problem could be responsible for the onset of a long-term economic decline. Your denial does not prevent this decline. But it will surely prevent you from understanding it.

7 comments:

jim said...

The gist of the people you are quoting seems to be:
"The ultimate source of inflation is persistent excessive growth in aggregate demand resulting from persistent excessive growth in the supply of money."

The problem with that story is there is not much evidence to support it.

The money supply was growing just as fast in the late 50's and 60's without much inflation. And the money supply growth stopped growing quite a while AFTER inflation rates went down. I suppose demand fell because people (consumers?) knew the money supply was going to stop growing so fast five years later.

If they're going to tell a story doncha think there should be some evidence to support it?

https://fred.stlouisfed.org/graph/fredgraph.png?g=Cbzx


The Arthurian said...

Jim,
The argument you reject --
"The ultimate source of inflation is persistent excessive growth in aggregate demand resulting from persistent excessive growth in the supply of money."
-- says inflation is a RESULT of money growth. I reject this argument also.

Milton Friedman famously said “Inflation is always and everywhere a monetary phenomenon in the sense that it is and can be produced only by a more rapid increase in the quantity of money than in output.”

As I read Friedman's statement, he is NOT saying inflation is always and everywhere a RESULT of money growth. As I read it, he is saying that inflation CANNOT HAPPEN UNLESS money growth allows it. Too bad everyone doesn't read it that way.

//

John Harvey rejects "the popular view of inflation (wherein it is caused by money growth)". FRIEDMAN'S STATEMENT, AS I READ IT, IS COMPATIBLE WITH JOHN HARVEY'S STATEMENT.

John Harvey continues:
"Money comes into existence when someone adds it to her portfolio of assets.... [Harvey offers two scenarios...]
Neither of these scenarios allows the central bank to increase the supply of money beyond demand.... [that's a very good argument!]
Thus, the money growth accompanies inflation, but it does not cause it."

John Harvey says money growth ACCOMPANIES inflation but DOES NOT CAUSE it.
Friedman's "always and everywhere" says inflation is PRODUCED by money growth. I find Friedman's view comparable to what Peter Cooper said in a heteconomist post a couple years back: "Money creation can ENABLE cost-push inflation, but ..."

THE DIFFERENCE IS: The people who insist that inflation is a RESULT of money growth are PUSHING ON A STRING. John Harvey and Peter Cooper and I picture LETTING OUT STRING while the wind takes the kite where it will. (I'm describing a process here, not arguing in favor of inflation!)

Also, as the kite cannot rise unless string is let out, it is reasonable to say inflation is "produced" or "enabled" by money growth. John Harvey's word "accompany" is not quite strong enough. I think it safe to say that inflation CANNOT HAPPEN UNLESS money (or velocity or credit use) enables it or produces it or allows it to happen.

The Arthurian said...

From the essay: But whether or not "the Fed can control inflation by controlling the money," it remains true that cost pressure not relieved by inflation finds relief by slowing the economy.

My essay is about rejecting what I take to be the modern, "evolved" view of demand side and supply side inflation, a view best expressed by Scott Sumner.

I reject that view because it defines "supply shock" as temporary, and redefines "inflation" as sustained. As a result of these careful word choices, it is no longer possible for there to be such a thing as "sustained cost pressure" that might give rise to the old-style, now defunct "cost push inflation".

That's the point I am trying to make in my essay. I need the old-style "cost-push inflation" to be accepted as economic theory, because I need it so I can show that the cost of finance is the source of the cost pressure that is creating the cost-push inflation, and that this cost-push inflation is the source of the long-term slowdown of economic growth.

I thought that the people I quoted (and others like them) would react to my essay with a "pushing on a string" argument. I wanted to tell them, should they happen to read me, that if you read Friedman's argument as "letting out string" instead, you can hold fast to Friedman while rejecting the pseudo-science of redefining terms for the sole purpose of making "push on a string" appear to be true.

But Jim, you don't seem to have much use for Friedman's thinking. That's fine! You should be able to skip past the Friedman part of my essay and get to the idea that gradual but persistent growth of financial cost (in the years since WWII) has created a mild cost-push inflation that puts persistent, gradual downward pressure on economic growth.

The Arthurian said...

Jim, I don't know where I got that "kite string" comparison. It came to mind too easily: I must have read it somewhere, and it stayed in the back of my mind ever since.

It works, though.

jim said...

The argument you reject --....-- says inflation is a RESULT of money growth. I reject this argument also.

I'm sorry but I don't see any argument.
All I see is people telling stories that imply a factual record that simply does not exist.

You are making it sound like this is the old argument of causation vs correlation. But the data shows there was no no relationship between money growth and inflation in the period being discussed. If you put M2 growth on a log scale it runs straight as an arrow from 1959 to about 1988. Meanwhile Inflation was down and then up and then down and up and then down again before the M2 growth train ran out of steam.

At least the blind men of Indostan had a factual basis for their arguments>
https://www.sloww.co/wp-content/uploads/2020/08/Sloww-The-Blind-Men-And-The-Elephant-John-Godfrey-Saxe.jpg

If you put the M2

The Arthurian said...

Jim, I think you might like this quote from Samuelson and Solow 1960 (page 361):

"   One sometimes sees statements to the effect that increases in expenditure more rapid than increases in real output necessarily spell demand inflation. It is simple arithmetic that expenditure outrunning output by itself spells only price increases and provides no evidence at all about the source or cause of the inflation. Much of the talk about too much money chasing too few goods is of this kind.
   A more solemn version of the fallacy goes: An increase in expenditure can come about only through an increase in the stock of money or an increase in the velocity of circulation. Therefore the only possible causes of inflation are M and V and we need look no further."

The Arthurian said...

From Investopedia on supply shocks:

"A change in demand must be abrupt and perceived as temporary to qualify as a shock, as is the case on the supply side."

"must be abrupt and perceived as temporary", and that's what we have now, instead of cost-push.